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Date: 02/27/2002 at 14 13
From: Doctor Peterson
Subject: Re: Use of plural with decimal numbers
Hi, Eric.
English (and especially American English) has no "official" rules for
anything, though there are many "experts" who claim to give such
rules. But with or without regulation, this is definitely a linguistic
issue rather than one of mathematics or logic. Each language has a
different set of rules for number as well as other aspects of grammar
- for example, some languages have not only a singular and a plural,
but a "dual" for exactly two, which would raise additional questions
when applied to, say, 2.001. Different rules may be equally logical,
and different languages may have different needs.
Here is another reference I found (from Germany, but referring to
English:
Vocabulary Box: SI Units of Measure(ment)
http://mueller.zems.tu-berlin.de/evt...voc/bx_SI.html
With a few exceptions, plurals of spelled-out units are formed
conventionally. Use the singular form with numbers less than or
equal to 1, and use the plural form with numbers greater than 1.
(In spoken English, however, decimal numbers take the plural
form even if they are less than 1, e.g. "a quarter second" but
"zero point two five seconds.")
This shows that both of the rules I gave have their place.
- Doctor Peterson, The Math Forum
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
Date: 02/27/2002 at 16 13
From: Doctor Peterson
Subject: Re: Use of plural with decimal numbers
Hello, Eric!
I looked again and found that although your Quebec URL referred only
to the main page (because the source uses a frame), another link takes
me to a FAQ with the answer you described:
http://www.olf.gouv.qc.ca/ressources/faq/760.html
Here is a translation:
Agreement of the noun after a fractional number less than two
The noun that follows a fractional number less than two, such as
one and a half, does not take the plural. Contrary to the English
use, the name million, when one writes 1,5 million, remains in the
singular. Moreover, the oral pronunciation shows that it is about
a unit: one million five hundred thousand.
The rule of agreement is the following: a name preceded by a
number takes the plural only when this number is equal to or
greater than two.
Here are some examples:
1,3 billion people (it is necessary to say: a billion three
hundred million people);
1,47 meter (it is necessary to say: one meter 47);
An average of 1,25 child by household (it is necessary to say:
a child and a quarter).
Note that "the English use" for "million" differs from the American
usage; the English say "1.5 millions," but we Americans use the
singular no matter how many million it is.
I suspect that the reason for the French rule lies in the way you say
the number. You say the whole part, then the unit (million, meter,
child), then the fractional part (three hundred million, 47, quarter).
So if the whole part is one, you use the singular, and if it is two or
more you use the plural. We think of the entire number as more than
one and therefore plural; you use only the whole part as a direct
modifier, which is NOT more than one in these cases, though a fraction
is then added to it. The difference is entirely in the grammar, which
determines the choice of words.
Another page gives some related ideas on fractions:
La foire aux questions linguistiques
http://www.olf.gouv.qc.ca/ressources/faq/815.html
In English we tend always to think of the fraction as a number in
itself, rather than as a phrase, and to emphasize agreement in meaning
rather than form; we would never say "2/3 of the road are open," even
though grammatically the subject of the verb is the plural "thirds."
But we would say "2/3 of the students are present," because there must
be more than one student. On the other hand, the British would say
"2/3 of the class are present," while an American might prefer
"2/3 of the class is present," because we tend to treat collective
nouns as singular. Language has its reasons, but they are not always
in agreement.
Of course, this is entirely a grammatical matter in French, and mostly
a logical issue in English (that is, we aren't thinking of grammar,
but only of whether more than one is under consideration). So in
French this usage with fractions disagrees with the "two or more are
plural" rule, because the grammar differs in the two cases, whereas in
English we more consistently focus on the meaning.
I've enjoyed looking into this issue, even though it is really a
question for Dr. Linguistics.
- Doctor Peterson, The Math Forum
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
Date: 02/28/2002 at 05 05
From: Eric Derobert
Subject: Use of plural with decimal numbers
Dear Dr Peterson,
Thank you for spending such an amount of time to answer this
paramathematical topic ! This is very complete.
I think you are right when emphasizing the role of the way of saying
numbers : "1.50 meters" in English and "1 metre 50" in French, which
is written "1,50 metre" for consistency.
Kind regards, and thank you again !
Eric
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